This is a spinoff from the thread titled "The Maid..." -- I didn't want to hijack that thread too much with my objections.
By "nonconsensual tickling videos" (NTV, for brevity) I mean videos where the specific selling point of the product is that a real (not staged) unsuspecting victim is tied and tickled without consent, then offered money to sign a waiver that releases the producers from criminal responsibility. IIRC, such videos were made by at least two producers, the latest being "Without Consent" by TC Productions. For the purposes of this discussin, a video where consenting actors act as if they have been abducted and tickled against their will are not NTVs.
1. Is producing NTVs a crime?
If not for the waiver, it definitely would be (charges of sexual assault and kidnapping, at least). I am not a lawyer, but I think there are jurisdictions where a waiver for criminal activity signed after the fact has no force. If the victim signs it, then files criminal charges anyway, the charges might hold, though the victim might then be forced to return the bribe through a civil suit. The victim probably won't file charges, but that does not mean it's not a crime (just like murder is a crime, even if the victim does not file charges).
2. If producing NTVs is a crime, is it provable/prosecutable?
Well, the evidence is available for sale, so proving that it happened is no problem. The burden of proof is on the producers to prove that it was consensual, and if they manage that, they will face the charges of fraud (false advertizing) instead.
3. Regardless of whether producing an NTV is criminal, is it ethical?
Assumption: long, truly nonconsensual tickling (where the victim does not give concent at all, express or implied, before or after the fact) is unethical.
If the victim was asked beforehand whether she would submit to the tickling session for X amount of money, she would have faced two choices:
(a) accept the money and endure the tickling,
(b) refuse the money and leave.
If she was given the same choices after the session and retroactively chose (a), then the tickling would not have been unethical. If she chooses (b) after the fact, you're screwed, but that's beside the point. The problem is, the choices the victim is given after the fact are not (a) and (b) as above, because the tickling is already in her memory and cannot be undone. After all the bargaining for X is done, the victim, most likely in a traumatized state, faces the following choices instead:
(c) accept the money and leave,
(d) refuse the money and seek justice against the producers,
(e) accept the money and seek justice against the producers.
A consent to tickling requires one to have a choice between "tickling" and "no tickling", not "now that I've been tickled, what do I do about it". Even if the victim chooses (c), that does not make the tickling consensual, because there is no alternate choice here that says "no tickling". Therefore, I believe the tickling in case of NTVs is unconsensual even after the waiver is signed, thus producing NTVs is unethical.
The only way I can think of that one can try to obtain consent after the fact is to ask the victim after the session: "If before the session you were given choices (a) and (b), which would you have chosen?" The problem is that if you offer her money to say "I would have chosen (a)", she might lie just to get the money (in reality choosing (c) instead of (a)), in which case you still don't get consent.
4. If producing NTVs is unethical, is it also unethical to buy them?
If a person is tickled without consent, raped, murdered, or otherwise victimized, and somebody happens to film that, I wouldn't have a problem with watching that (as long as the person that filmed that (a) was not capable of doing something more useful at the time, such as helping the victim, for reasons I can respect, and (b) submits a copy of the tape to the appropriate agency for the purpose of catching the perp).
However, in case of an NTV, the producers of the video victimized a person and filmed it, with the specific intent to sell the resulting video and make a profit. That means, they expected enough demand for such a video to cover their expenses, including the victim's bribe -- otherwise they would not have done it. By exhibiting demand for that video, their customers prove them right, and encourage them (and others) to make similar videos. Thus, I believe it is unethical, in most cases, to buy a video documenting a real unethical act.
5. If producing NTVs is criminal, is consuming them also criminal? Probably, considering it is already criminal to knowingly consume other products of criminal activities (such as buying snuff porn, child porn, and stolen property) because consuming the products of criminal activity encourages people to perpetrate such activities again.
Whew, that was long. Still with me? Comments, questions, counterarguments?
By "nonconsensual tickling videos" (NTV, for brevity) I mean videos where the specific selling point of the product is that a real (not staged) unsuspecting victim is tied and tickled without consent, then offered money to sign a waiver that releases the producers from criminal responsibility. IIRC, such videos were made by at least two producers, the latest being "Without Consent" by TC Productions. For the purposes of this discussin, a video where consenting actors act as if they have been abducted and tickled against their will are not NTVs.
1. Is producing NTVs a crime?
If not for the waiver, it definitely would be (charges of sexual assault and kidnapping, at least). I am not a lawyer, but I think there are jurisdictions where a waiver for criminal activity signed after the fact has no force. If the victim signs it, then files criminal charges anyway, the charges might hold, though the victim might then be forced to return the bribe through a civil suit. The victim probably won't file charges, but that does not mean it's not a crime (just like murder is a crime, even if the victim does not file charges).
2. If producing NTVs is a crime, is it provable/prosecutable?
Well, the evidence is available for sale, so proving that it happened is no problem. The burden of proof is on the producers to prove that it was consensual, and if they manage that, they will face the charges of fraud (false advertizing) instead.
3. Regardless of whether producing an NTV is criminal, is it ethical?
Assumption: long, truly nonconsensual tickling (where the victim does not give concent at all, express or implied, before or after the fact) is unethical.
If the victim was asked beforehand whether she would submit to the tickling session for X amount of money, she would have faced two choices:
(a) accept the money and endure the tickling,
(b) refuse the money and leave.
If she was given the same choices after the session and retroactively chose (a), then the tickling would not have been unethical. If she chooses (b) after the fact, you're screwed, but that's beside the point. The problem is, the choices the victim is given after the fact are not (a) and (b) as above, because the tickling is already in her memory and cannot be undone. After all the bargaining for X is done, the victim, most likely in a traumatized state, faces the following choices instead:
(c) accept the money and leave,
(d) refuse the money and seek justice against the producers,
(e) accept the money and seek justice against the producers.
A consent to tickling requires one to have a choice between "tickling" and "no tickling", not "now that I've been tickled, what do I do about it". Even if the victim chooses (c), that does not make the tickling consensual, because there is no alternate choice here that says "no tickling". Therefore, I believe the tickling in case of NTVs is unconsensual even after the waiver is signed, thus producing NTVs is unethical.
The only way I can think of that one can try to obtain consent after the fact is to ask the victim after the session: "If before the session you were given choices (a) and (b), which would you have chosen?" The problem is that if you offer her money to say "I would have chosen (a)", she might lie just to get the money (in reality choosing (c) instead of (a)), in which case you still don't get consent.
4. If producing NTVs is unethical, is it also unethical to buy them?
If a person is tickled without consent, raped, murdered, or otherwise victimized, and somebody happens to film that, I wouldn't have a problem with watching that (as long as the person that filmed that (a) was not capable of doing something more useful at the time, such as helping the victim, for reasons I can respect, and (b) submits a copy of the tape to the appropriate agency for the purpose of catching the perp).
However, in case of an NTV, the producers of the video victimized a person and filmed it, with the specific intent to sell the resulting video and make a profit. That means, they expected enough demand for such a video to cover their expenses, including the victim's bribe -- otherwise they would not have done it. By exhibiting demand for that video, their customers prove them right, and encourage them (and others) to make similar videos. Thus, I believe it is unethical, in most cases, to buy a video documenting a real unethical act.
5. If producing NTVs is criminal, is consuming them also criminal? Probably, considering it is already criminal to knowingly consume other products of criminal activities (such as buying snuff porn, child porn, and stolen property) because consuming the products of criminal activity encourages people to perpetrate such activities again.
Whew, that was long. Still with me? Comments, questions, counterarguments?